Invitation to ALQUORA 2018

contest timer is on but the problems are not visible. Please look into it!

2 Likes

still can’t see problems! oh no! :stuck_out_tongue:

The contest is postponed to 10:15 PM guys as per the announcement.

My submission is running for a several minutes
https://www.codechef.com/submit/complete/20463819

is there any goodies to the india ranker’s or only laddus?

not at all organized one! The solutions of the other contestants are visible clearly! :frowning:

2 Likes

How to solve GDP problem.

@manaranjanfav you have to just partition the entire array into 3 partition and then for that specific partition you’ll have the answer (1^x * 2^y * 3^z) where(x+y+z = n) and now the problem boils down to find a way to partition at and then add the corresponding number of ways to the answer. So, for now suppose we have only 2 values i.e. we need to partition the array into two half (suppose they are of the kind 2nd and 3rd). So, for a particular length n we have total of n+1 partitions possible (1st -> include 0 2nd type and n 3rd type, 2nd -> include 1 2nd type and n-1 3rd type and so on…). So, total number of ways for a particual length (such that we are allowed to use only 2nd and 3rd type) t is sum over all the above mentioned cases (2^0 * 3^t + 2^1 * 3^(t-1) + .....) and we know it’s a GP with sum (3^(t^+1^) - 2^(t^+1^)). Now, we know the number of ways we can make ornaments using 2nd and 3rd type and only case to include to get the answer is to include 1st type ornament and for that also we can do in same way. Suppose we have a total length of ‘n’ and so the total number of ways = sum of((0 length of 1st type and n length from remaining two) + (1 length of 1st type and (n-1) length of remaining two) + … ) = now as we know that (number of ways to select 1st type ornament of length x is 1) and so, we can reduce the above equation to the sum of expression (3^(t^+1^) - 2^(t^+1^)) from 0 to N.

+1. Facing same problem

the contest is postponed to 10:15 PM as per the announcement

2 Likes

The same. what a pity.

@jjtomar +1

It is still running, and have no test result.

Yes, it was visible after 1:00 am for last 15 minutes :frowning:

Wtf!!,honest people :slight_smile:

Congratulations for your performance. You will be getting cash prize and certificates from nit raipur and laddus from codechef.

Can u please declare the goodies and laddus for rankers?

@vivek_1998299 Congrats! Btw can you please explain your solution to the last problm?

Thanx

For last sum ,we consider each node as B type node,obviously now if we wanna find C node for that node v ,we should just take maximum in subtree of v.

Now v is B node,max is C node

So only thing left is A node,if we have a map containing elements of path root to v,then we can find easily the largest value less than v among the parents of v,which is A.

These all can be done in a single dfd(i dont know y i used 2,should’ve done with 1).

Solution:

https://www.codechef.com/viewsolution/20466684

1 Like

I haven’t yet received any mail from u regarding bank details or anything,by when and how are u’ll gonna send the cash prize?And by when will i receive the laddus?

Hope this is not any kind of scam!!