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IOPC14A ; small doubt

given a=n! and b as stated in the question .Isnt it enough to just find (n!/b)%2 and this can be written as (n!)%2 * (b^(2-2))%2 =(n!)%2

am i wrong in assuming something because i m using fermet's little theorm

asked 28 Jun '14, 16:18

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question asked: 28 Jun '14, 16:18

question was seen: 246 times

last updated: 28 Jun '14, 16:18