For the sake of explaining, I will denote i_{th} Fibonacci number as F_i. Notice that the sum
{{F_2}\choose{2}} + {{F_3}\choose{2}} + ... + {{F_n}\choose{2}}
can be rephrased as \sum_{i = 2}^{n}{F_i\choose{2}} which is same as saying
{\sum_{i = 2}^{n}{\frac{(F_i)(F_i - 1)}{2}}} = {\sum_{i = 2}^{n}{\frac{({F_i}^2 - F_i)}{2}}}
There is not easy way to solve this, right? Well, actually notice the following property:
{\sum_{i = 1}^{n}{F_i^2}} = F_n \cdot F_{n + 1}
This can easily be proven by induction:
Basis of induction:
For P(1), sum is obviously F_1 \cdot F_2 = 1 \cdot 1 = 1, which is true.
Inductive Hypothesis
If P(n) hold, then P(n + 1) holds as well.
Inductive Step
{\sum_{i = 1}^{n}{F_i^2}} = F_n \cdot F_{n + 1} holds.
We need to show
{\sum_{i = 1}^{n + 1}{F_i^2}} = F_{n + 1} \cdot F_{n + 2}
We can reformulate the sum as
{\sum_{i = 1}^{n + 1}{F_i^2}} = {\sum_{i = 1}^{n}{F_i^2}} + F_{n + 1}^2
This is equivalent to:
{F_n \cdot F_{n + 1}} + F_{n + 1}^2 = F_{n + 1} \cdot (F_n + F_{n + 1}) = F_{n + 1} \cdot F_{n + 2}
Hence the above statement is proved.
Another observation to make is that \sum_{i = 1}^{n}{F_i} = F_{n + 2} - 1. Again this can be easily proven using induction so I leave it as an exercise to you.
Now that we have these out of our way, we can rephrase the original problem as finding the value of:
{\sum_{i = 2}^{n}{\frac{({F_i}^2 - F_i)}{2}}} = {{\frac{1}{2}}({\sum_{i = 2}^{n}{F_i^2}} - {\sum_{i = 2}^{n}{F_i}})} = {{\frac{1}{2}}{(F_n \cdot F_{n + 1} - 1 - (F_{n + 2} - 1 - F_1))}}
Thus the original problem is reduced to efficiently calculating n_{th} and (n + 1)_{th} Fibonacci number (this allows us to easily compute F_{n + 2} as well).
This is a well-known problem and is most commonly seen matrix exponentiation introductory problem, so you can read about it on GFG or some other online source. Hope I could help! 
EDIT: I apologize for making many small mistakes while writing this, the +1 and +2 things should be fixed now.